I want to walk through the derivation of the frequency representation of an impulse train.
The definition of the impulse train function with period T and the frequency representation with sampling frequency Ωs=2π/T that I would like to derive is:
s(t)=∞∑n=−∞δ(t−nT)S(jΩ)=2πT∞∑k=−∞δ(Ω−kΩs)
Using the exponential Fourier series representation of the impulse function and applying the Fourier transform from there results in:
s(t)=1T∞∑n=−∞e−jnΩstS(jΩ)=∫∞−∞s(t)e−jΩtdtS(jΩ)=∫∞−∞1T∞∑n=−∞e−jnΩste−jΩtdtS(jΩ)=1T∫∞−∞∞∑k=−∞e−j(kΩs+Ω)tdt
To get from there to the end result, it would seem that the integration would need to be over a period of 2π. Where Ω=−kΩs, the exponent would be e0 and integrate to 2π and for other values of Ω, there would be a full sine wave that would integrate to zero. However, the limits of integration are negative infinity to positive infinity. Can someone explain this? Thanks!
Answer
You correctly figured out that the occurring integrals don't converge in the conventional sense. The easiest (and definitely non-rigorous) way to see the result is by noting the Fourier transform relation
1⟺2πδ(Ω)
By the shifting/modulation property we have
ejΩ0t⟺2πδ(Ω−Ω0)
So each term ejnΩst in the Fourier series transforms to 2πδ(Ω−nΩs), and the result follows.
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