grammar - What are the fundamental differences between the ～と一緒に and the ～とともに fragments?

I'm accustomed to saying together with using the ~ to issho ni fragment, but I've been noticing that some people I talk to phrase this using ~ totomo ni instead.

i.e.

彼女と一緒に日本へ来た。
Kanojo to issho ni Nihon e kita.

and

彼女とともに日本へきた。
Kanojo totomo ni Nihon e kita.

seem to be fundamentally equivalent.

Are there any nuances that the two have that dictates when and where they should be used? Probably very slight meaning deviations? Or are they essentially perfect equivalents of each other when it comes to saying together with (and yeah, I'm aware that ~ totomo ni has other meanings aside from that)?

Answer

一緒に, as you say, is regularly used for saying doing something "together". 共に(ともに) is more explicit about who you are performing this action with, thereby placing a stronger emphasis on the bond/camaraderie.

私と一緒に戦います!

Fight together with me!

私と共に戦います!

Fight hand-in-hand/side-by-side with me!

So I would say you'd pick which to use depending on whether you are trying to place an emphasis on the action or the other person(s) involved.

everyday chemistry - Is it possible to separate/remove sugar from common drinks, such as juice?

Is it possible to remove sugar from a drink (for example, juice) using common household equipment?

halacha - Maariv After Bedtime Shema

Many a time I realize that I have forgotten to say Maariv in midst of reciting the bedtime Shema.

Halachic Question: Is one permitted to Daven Maariv after saying ברוך המפיל?

Answer

Of course you need to pray maariv. Even if we say that the Kriat Shema of bedtime made you quite for the mitsvat KS and Yetsiat Mitsrayim (If you said also Vayomer). If you read in S.A. O.C. 239 and mefarshim, you will see that to say some psalms for shmira after blessing hamapil because of the importance of Shmira. A fortiori, a mitsva as Arvit. 2 brachot before Shema, 2 after it. Even to go at Shtiblech to pray be minyan is allowed. In the Tur & Bet Yosef at the same siman there is no mention of "prohibition to speak", but Bet Yosef mentioned in name of Kol Bo, Rabenu Yerucham and Rokeach, not to eat, drink or speak after KS al Hamita. No mention of Hamapil. No mention of praying or make a mitsva or to go to bathroom.

You need to make a separation between 2 problems, 1.- is the bracha of Hamapil canceled if after it you make something, is it Bracha Levatala and you need to say Baruch Shem Kevod Malchuto... , need you to blessing it next time at the new bedtime. 2.- Is there a cancellation of all obligation through this Bracha.

The second point is obviously not right, because for such a Chiddush we need a proof and nobody in SA treat this. The Magen Avraham told about a man who want to be in marital relationship and advise to say Hamapil after but he doesn't say that marital relationship is prohibited after Hamapil.

The only considerations concerning things after Hamapil are Lechatechilla (is it right to make this a priori). But nothing is written Bedieved (a posteriori).

Arvit is a duty (despite that originally arvit is reshut) and we need to consider it as a duty already at the time you said Hamapil. You cannot cancel a duty.

organic chemistry - Nucleophilicity/basicity in protic and aprotic solvents

1. 
   

   In polar aprotic solvent, why is $\ce{F-}$ a stronger nucleophile than $\ce{I-}$?

   
   

   What I think: If I talk about their basicity, $\ce{F-}$ would be more basic due to instability from its high electron density. Is it applied same when talking about nucleophiliicty?

   
   
   


2. 
   

   Why is an atom with high polarizability a strong nucleophile?

   
   

   What I heard: an increased atom size means a high polarizability, and a high polarizability means a high nucleophilicty because the atom can give its weakly-held $e^-$ easier.

   
   

   What I think: above sentence makes sense to me. But in another point of view, isn't it also right that the atom with properties like that would be stable, making it poor nucleophile?

   
   


3. 
   

   When talking about nucleophilicity, why does the polarizability matter in a polar protic solvent, but not in a polar aprotic solvent?

   
   

   What I heard: when deciding the nucleophilicty of an atom in a polar protic solvent, there are two factors that come into play: solvation and polarizability.

   
   

   What I think: in a polar protic solvent, since the effect of solvation is significant, the polarizability shouldn't mean so much. Rather, its effect should be significant in polar aprotic solvent since there's no hydrogen bonding. Is this wrong?

   
   
   

yom kippur - What's the best rewording of "midas harachamim aleinu hisgalgli" for those uncomfortable with it?

In the Selichot (fifth day of Aseret Yimei Teshuvah, HaPizmon shel Yud Gimel Middot HaRahamim) and in Ne'ila of Yom Kippur, there's the stanza that reads:

The concern is the few middle lines:

מדת הרחמים עלינו התגלגלי

ולפני קונך תחנתנו הפילי

ובעד עמך רחמים שאלי

Which sounds like we're addressing G-d's mercy as separate from G-d, asking her to beseech G-d on our behalf. For those uncomfortable with this concept theologically (or unwilling to give the liturgy some artistic license), what's the best rewording here? The stanza ends with the Biblical וכל ראש לחלי so anything would either have to match that (ending in "lee"); paraphrase the verse differently; or break the rhyme.

Answer

A Hebrew Publishing Company machzor of 1926 ("reprinted from the latest and best London edition") has the following (image of relevant stanza), which clearly addresses HaShem (and later one's own soul) rather than His attribute of mercy:

רַחֲמֶיךָ עָלֵינוּ גּלְגֵּל נָא גֹאֲלִי׃

לְפָנָיו נַפְשִׁי תְּחִנָּתִךְ הַפִּילִּי׃

וּבְעַד עַמִּי רַחֲמִים שַׁאֲלִי׃

כִּי כָל לֵבָב דַּוָּי וְכָל רָאשׁ לָחֳלִי׃

words - First use of the term "Taharat HaMischpacha "

When and by whom (and why) was the phrase "טהרת המשפחה" ("family purity") first used to describe the halachot relating to niddah?

Answer

There's a Sefer by that name from 90 years ago - תרפג/1923.

A search of HebrewBooks.org seems to show that the term was not used [much] earlier.

A search of Toras Emeth Software indicates that it's not used in any of the classics (Mishna, Gemara, Rambam, Shulchan Aruch) and the earliest it finds is from the קיצור ש''ע ילקוט יוסף - the 2nd half of the 20th century.

story identification - Curse on the Kennedys

I once heard that a Rabbi cursed the Kennedy family because a member of that family who was involved with US immigration turned away a boat of Jewish immigrants. I would like to know the source of that story and whether a theurgical curse was performed.