Wednesday, October 10, 2018

inorganic chemistry - Why is Ionization Energy definition restricted to gaseous atoms?


Here's the definition of ionization energy that I am learning at this level:




energy required to remove 1 mole of electrons from 1 mole of gaseous atoms to form 1 mole of uni positively charged gaseous ions.



I would like to know, why did they specify that the removal of electrons have to be at gaseous state and the ions that form are gaseous as well? Does it have to do with the amount of energy supplied that causes the elements to vapourize?




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periodic trends - Comparing radii in lithium, beryllium, magnesium, aluminium and sodium ions

Apparently the of last four, $\ce{Mg^2+}$ is closest in radius to $\ce{Li+}$. Is this true, and if so, why would a whole larger shell ($\ce{...