It was discussed in a previous question if when a woman who converts to Judaism while pregnant if the child is also Jewish or not. From there it seems that the child is yes Jewish however with some halachic difference.
I'm asking now if there is a possibility that this child wouldn't need pidyon haben (the father I'll add was also a convert at the same time the woman become one, when she was pregnant.)
One possible reason why he wouldn't need (I would say) is because of the dissenting opinions (Ramban) that when the child is born he would need to undergo another conversion.
And if the child does need pidyon haben, can the father (who wasn't Jewish at the time of conception, but is Jewish now) perform the pidyon haben himself or must the child do it for himself later on in life?
No comments:
Post a Comment