There are many examples of 'Jewish' characters in Tanach (even post Matan Torah) who marry non-Jews (who are not described in Tanakh as converts), and their actions appear to be accepted. This makes me wonder: Was intermarriage between Jews and non-Jews permitted according to the halacha in the era of the Tanach?
Examples: Moshe (Ex 2), מַחְלוֹן וְכִלְיוֹן (Ruth 1), Shimshon (Judges 14), David (1 Samuel 3), Shlomo (1 Kings 11), Ahab (1 Kings 16), Esther...
Midrashim and answers from "tradition" will only be accepted if it can be demonstrated that they originate in that era. This is because explanations which are based on later halacha may not accurately reflect the circumstances present in the Tanach, and may instead be back-reading or inserting anachronistic concepts. This question assumes halacha changes over time. Answers which can prove this to be incorrect are acceptable.
Related: Is it permissible for a Jewish woman to marry a Muslim man and vice versa?
Related: Anyone who says these people sinned is mistaken. For real?
There are two general approaches I've seen with questions like these: 1. They didn't actually violate halacha, because < insert extenuating circumstance or extra-textual explanation here. > 2. They did violate halacha, and that's that, and we simply shouldn't do what they did. This question is asking about the assumption underlying both approaches, namely, that the halacha as we know it is the same as it was then. Maybe they didn't violate it, without any extratextual explanations, because it was different back then?
This question is looking for evidence demonstrating that the halacha was either the same or was different in that era.
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