It seems to be accepted that a non-Jew who converts owns his property that he owned as a non-Jew, and this is the simple reading of several Mishnayos (See Peah 4:6 for example). However, there is a rule that גר שנתגייר כקטן שנולד דמי - a convert is like a newborn child (Yevamos 62a). That being the case, on what basis does he own his property from before he converted?
(If your answer is that כקטן שנולד דמי does not extend so far, I would like that to be sourced explicitly.)
Answer
Rabbi Yecheszkel Pledberger has an extensive pilpul on the concept of גר שנתגייר כקטן שנולד דמי here, starting with the biblical source of the concept.
The upshot is that the newness is vis-a-vis Mitzvos - even the 7 that a non-Jew is obligated to. The convert becomes newly born in that all of his Mitzvos obligations are new.
So it would seem to me that ownership of property is not included in that, as he doesn't own it due to a Mitzvah that he is newly obligated in, nor did he own it previously due to something unique about his status as a non-Jew.
No comments:
Post a Comment