The Talmud often invokes the principle of תפסת מרובה לא תפסת תפסת מועט תפסת. (E.g. Yoma 80a) This would seem to be a presentation of Occam's razor. I am looking for confirmation (or rejection) of the idea that the two are identical.
A subset of this question is the source for the aforementioned Talmudic dictum. If it is scripturaly sourced, then presumably it is not the simple logical principle of Occam. For logic is generally prefered to scriptural source. (למה לי קרא סברא היא).
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