Sunday, April 30, 2017

jewish books - Which seforim did you use when learning for Rabbinic Semicha


Which sforim and topics are commonly learned by students who are studying to receive Rabbinic ordination?


ie: Yoreh De'ah Melicha - Tur V'Shulchan Aruch



Different groups within Orthodox Judaism require different levels of in depth study in Halacha. The question will show readers a broad spectrum of what kind of learning goes into different Semicha programs.



Answer



In the Chabad world, it depends on the program.


All learn



  • Basar Bechalav

  • Taaroves (or Taaruvos)

  • Parts of Melicha


Some learn




  • Full Melicha

  • Koshering Vessels

  • Shabbos

  • Birchos Hanehenin

  • Pas Akum/Bishul Akum/Chalav Akum


Useful Materials


Yoreh De'ah -





  • Gemara/Rashi




  • Tur/Beis Yosef/some Bachs




  • Shulchan Aruch/Shach/Taz (some Pri Megadims, mostly brought down in Shiur)





  • Shaarei Yoreh Deyah - A summary of the "Shach"s and "Taz"es (similar to




  • Maareches Hashulchan




  • Badei Hashulchan (brought down in shiurim)




  • Aruch Hashulchan (brought down in shiurim)





  • Piskei Dinim of the Alter Rebbe on Yoreh Deah (it's a blue sefer which extrapolates R' Shneur Zalman of Liadi's shittos in Yoreh Deah from Hilchos Pesach (and other sources).




Shabbos - Due to the fact that I studies in Lubavitch, the material here is geared to the "Chabad" circle.




  • Alter Rebbe's Shulchan Aruch.





  • Ktzos Hashulchan




  • Sefer Shabbos Kehalacha (brought down in shiurim)










  • Shabbos - 242-344 (one must learn simanim 253-259, 279, 302, 307-311, 313-322, 325, 328-331, 337, 340 in depth).




  • Issur Veheter - Mlicha, Basar Bechalav, Taaroves, Bishul Akum, siman 212, 213, 220, 221.



  • Nidda

  • Mikvaos


  • Chuppa V'Kidushin - Even Haezer 1, 2, 4, 6, 9, 13, 26, 27, 34, 42, 52:1, 61, 62, 64, 66, 126:2 - 126:7 and Choshen Mishpat 33-34





  • Semachot - Yoreh Deah siman 340-403




Useful Materials:


See Smicha.co.il


passover - Deliveries during Pesach


May one request/accept/open a delivery of something (let's say, an Amazon order, a present from a friend) during Pesach? I'm not talking about during Yom Tov days, and I'm not talking about potential conflict with the laws of Chol Hamoed. I'm talking about the issue that there could be minute amounts of unexpected chometz in the package, which you would then own, and possibly see.


Obviously the chances are very low, but, since as I'm pretty sure the punishment for owning chometz is kareis, and this chometz would not have been sold nor nullified, I'm just wondering.



Answer



From torah.org:



QUESTION: What should be done if a package containing chametz arrives at one's home or business during Pesach?


DISCUSSION: One who knows - or even suspects - that the package may contain actual chametz, may not assume ownership of the package. If he can refuse to accept the package, he should do so. If he cannot, he should not bring it into his house or yard and should have specific halachic intent not to "acquire" the chametz. The package is considered "ownerless" - anyone who wants it is free to take it.


If the package was mistakenly brought into the home or business, one must have specific intent not to "acquire" it. One may not touch the actual chametz. O.C. 446:10.


If the package comes on Chol ha-Moed, the chametz should be immediately discarded, either by burning it or by flushing it down the toilet. If it comes on Shabbos or Yom Tov, it should be left where it is [The chametz is severe muktzeh and may not be moved for any reason; O.C. 446:1. Some poskim add that it may not even be moved with one's body or foot, even though other types of severe muktzeh may be; L'ehoros Nossan 5:30] and covered with a vessel until it can be discarded.


While most people do not expect to receive packages containing chametz during Pesach, one should be aware of a recent problem that applies to almost everybody. Many packaged items are insulated by packing pellets that protect the contents during transport. In the past, this cushioning was made from polystyrene, but recently, some companies have begun using biodegradable "peanuts" which are made from edible corn starch or wheat starch. Those that are made from wheat starch may be halachically considered "actual chametz" since they are fit for human consumption. If a package insulated with these "peanuts" arrives on Pesach, the halachos stated above may apply. A rav should be consulted.


A more lenient ruling might be based on the arguement that these pellets have been designated as packing material - not food. They have been processed to remove their nutrients and thus lost their "chametz form" and may be stored on Pesach; refer to O.C. 442:3 and 9, Mishnah Berurah 15, 41 and 42 and Chazon Ish O.C. 116:8. This is a questionable argument and a rav must be consulted.


While it may not always be easy to differentiate between the different types of packing pellets, there is a definite difference in appearance between the polystyrene and the starch ones. The polystyrene ones come in random shapes while the starch ones look as though they have been extruded through the holes of a machine. Each piece is perfectly cylindrical and is water soluble.


electronegativity - Why does NF3 have a smaller bond angle than NH3?


I've already read many answers about the reason why $\ce{NF3}$ has a smaller bond angle than $\ce{NH3}$ , but I can't seem to understand them. Here's my understanding of the situation:



  1. $\ce{NH3}$: Here N is more electronegative than H so a large electron cloud is crowded over N. This will push the bond pairs $\ce{N-H}$ away from the central atom. So, the angle of $\ce{H-N-H}$ will decrease.

  2. $\ce{NF3}$: Here F is more electronegative than N, so the lone pair cloud over N is scattered into the $\ce{N-F}$ bonds. Thus the smaller electron cloud over central atom is unable to push the $\ce{N-F}$ bonds away from itself as much as it did previously. So, bond angle should be higher than previous case.



Answer



The bond angle difference between $\ce{NH3}$ and $\ce{NF3}$ is not easily explained — but that is primarily because ammonia’s bond angles already violate the simple theories that work so well for phosphane, arsane and stibane.


From a nitrogen atom’s point of view, having its lone pair in an s-type orbital and forming bonds with the p orbitals alone would be energetically beneficial. p orbitals can overlap with other atoms much better because they are directional. However, if that was done the resulting ideal $90^\circ$ bond angles would bring the hydrogens far too close together. Therefore, s contribution is mixed into the bonding p orbitals to alleviate the steric stress until an observed ‘equilibrated bond angle’ of $107^\circ$.



The same thing occurs in $\ce{NF3}$. However, fluorine atoms also bond with p orbitals (rather than hydrogen’s s orbitals) and they are larger meaning that the bond lengths are also greater. Therefore, the fluorine atoms are already more spaced out as is and the bond angle needs to be expanded less far from the ideal $90^\circ$ to sufficiently prevent steric repulsion.


words - Calling a Jew a "guru"?


Is it appropriate to use the term "guru" to refer to an expert in matters of Judaism or Jewish law on the assumption that it will be understood as the second definition here, or is it inappropriate no matter what because of the vestigial influence of the first (Hindu) definition?




halacha theory - Halachic base of big loss (hefsed merube)


We see in the halacha many times that when we have a dispute if something is permitted or not and we pasken that it is not permitted, the halacha changes when there is a big loss.


I understand it intuitively, but is there a halachic definition of hefsed merube?


What is the source of it?


When do we apply it?


One example is in Jore Dea siman 69. There the Rema holds that if someone salted raw meat without washing it before, the meat is not kosher. When there is a hefsed merube you may wash it and salt it again.




Answer



Although he claims he didn't invent it, the Ramma was the one who popularized hephsed meruba, so I will quote what he has to say about it, found in his forward to Toras Chatas. This is my rough translation of dibur hamaschil והנה.



And behold I will save myself in one respect so that the reader will not suspect me. For sometimes I will write to be lenient for a large loss or a poor man for an important item, or for the honor of Shabbos. The reasoning is for in those places it seems to me to be completely allowed according to halakha. However, the later authorities were stringent on the matter, I therefore wrote that in a situation of impossibility, we can place the matter on it's law. And so I have found in the early ones and later ones who have done this. The Mahari Minz in his responsa #16 that a poor man throughout the week and a rich man on the eve of shabbos are the same, however, the custom is to tell them the reason (of the leniency) this one because he is poor and this one for the honor of shabbos, so they will not be confounded that at times I disallow and at times I allow.



I would like to point out that this is very different than what many people think hephsed meruba means. They equate it with what is classically called ra'uy lismoch alav bishaas hadchak. Which means we disagree with that opinion but since he is a great rabbi, his opinion is worth something as a halakhic decision. This is hardly ever used in classic codified halakhic works. What the Ramma describes as hephsed meruba is the exact opposite. An opinion who we agree with, but for whatever reason decided not to rule with lichatchila.


physical chemistry - What is the opposite of a surfactant?


Surfactants decrease surface tension between two fluids. What do you call a substance that increases the surface tension between two fluids? How is this effect acheived?





halacha - Why don't islands read the m'gila two days?


Bavli, M'gila 5 amud 2, cites a doubt as to when the m'gila is read in T'verya: on the fourteenth of Adar, as in most places, or on the fifteenth, as in a city walled since the time of Y'hoshua. The doubt arises because T'verya is walled except for its sea-facing side: is that side considered walled, since it's protected, or not, since it is open to the outside? In fact, as codified in Mishna B'rura 688:9, T'verya reads the m'gila both days, for this reason.


So a sea-facing side is a doubtful wall.


Consider Manhattan. Assume for the sake of argument that it's been an island since the time of Y'hoshua. Then it's been doubtfully walled since the time of Y'hoshua and so should read both days. Yet I've never heard of anyone reading two days in Manhattan — or on any other island.



  • Why not?

    • Is it perhaps because the city must have been inhabited since the time of Y'hoshua? If so, is that rule stated anywhere? I've never heard of it. And then what about the island-city of Kythnos, which has been inhabited that long? If Jews settle there, would they read both days?




  • Do any halachic opinions maintain that islands (that have been islands since the time of Y'hoshua) should read both days?



Answer



I gave a Shiur on this last year. Here is my summary of the reasons to be lenient. Much of this is based on a piece in קובץ פרי תמרים אדר תשמ"ז by Rav Ezriel Kahn. (Its also worth looking up the תשובה מאהבה חלק א' סי' ר"י.)


1) Rav Chaim Kanievsky - Because of the changing of the tides and shorelines and the like we don’t really know whether it was surrounded by water (he actually said whether it even existed) during the days of Yehoshua Bin Nun.



דולה ומשקה סוף עמ' רמ"ה – "שאלה: אם יש אי בים, האם תלוי בספק הגמ' בימה של טבריה האם הוי חומה, ויקראו בט"ו מספק. תשובה: יתכן שלא הי' אי בימי יב"נ ורק אח"כ העלה הים שרטון".




Interestingly, the Geography of Manhattan has changed drastically. Marble Hill used to be connected to Manhattan before it was connected to the Bronx and the Rest of North American mainland but it was possible to wade from the mainland to Marble Hill. I haven't found a source that tells us whether water that you could wade through counts as a wall. Also, although its clear the Native Americans waded through that water I did not find any sources as to what things had been like during the times of Yehoshua Bin Nun.


2) There is also a Machlokes whether walled cities in Chutz La’aretz qualify.



ר"ן מגילה ריש ב. בדפי הרי"ף - ואיכא מ"ד דכיון דבמוקפין חומה תלינן ביהושע דוקא בארץ אבל בחו"ל אפי' מוקפין חומה מימות יהושע קורין בי"ד מה ענין יהושע בחו"ל ועוד דבגמרא אמרינן דילפינן פרזי פרזי כתיב הכא היושבים בערי הפרזות וכתיב התם לבד מערי הפרזי מה להלן מוקפות דידהו מימות יהושע אף כאן מוקפות דידהו מימות יהושע ולבד מערי הפרזי בארץ ישראל כתיב



We do Pasken cities in Chutz La’aretz qualify, but you can still use it as a Snif.


3) It probably wasn’t dwelled at the time of Yehoshua Bin Nun and many hold it has to have been dwelled in at that time to qualify.


4) Even if it was dwelled (the Lenape Indians may have been in Manhattan then. Its not clear) it’s possible that they didn’t live in the whole thing (the Lenape Indians generally lived in groups of 25-50 people and never in groups bigger than 300. That doesn't take up a particularly significant percentage of Manhattan). For example, Australia doesn’t qualify as a walled city, or more extreme, the Americas don’t qualify because the wall isn’t specifically around the city.


5) We may not Pasken like Chizkiah. The Rambam, Shulchan Aruch, Tur, Rif, and Rosh all don’t bring the Din of Yamah Chomasah (possibly because we Pasken that we do learn out from Batei Arei Chomah/because we Pasken like Rebbi based on one of the final two answers and therefore Teveriah reads on 14th), the first big name to bring it is the Magen Avraham.




תשובה מאהבה חלק א' סי' ר"י - ולכאורה צ"ע דהרי"ף והרמב"ם והרא"ש והטור וש"ע השמיטו הך ספיקא דחזקי' אם הים חשוב חומה זולת המג"א סי' תרפ"ח סק"ד מביאו להלכה פסוקה וכו' .



6) Even if we do, it’s likely only a Middas Chassidus (based on the Geonim, unlike the Rambam).



ר"ן על הרי"ף מגילה סוף ב. - ולענין עיירות המסופקות אם הן מוקפין חומה מימות יהושע בן נון או לא הורו הגאונים ז"ל שהולכין בהן אחר רוב עיירות שרובן אינן מוקפות חומה מימות יהושע וקורין בהן בי"ד ועוד שאפילו תאמר שהוא ספק שקול ה"ל ספק של דבריהם ולקולא ונמצא פטורות בשניהם ומבטל ממנו בודאי מקרא מגילה לפיכך קורא בראשון ופטור בשני ודאמרינן בגמרא [דף ה ב] אטבריא והוצל שהיו קורין בהן בארבעה עשר ובחמשה עשר במדת חסידות היו נוהגין כן משום ספקא דטבריא דתליא במגניא ומכסיא ובהוצל מפני שהיו נחלקין בה בקבלתו זה אומר מוקפת וזה אומר אינה מוקפת והיו קורין בלא ברכה דספק דדבריהם לא בעי ברוכי כדאיתא בפרק במה מדליקין [דף כג א] אלא שראוי לברך בארבעה עשר מפני שהולכין אחר רוב העולם והרמב"ם ז"ל כתב בפרק ה' מהלכות מגילה עיר שהיא ספק קורין בה בשני הימים ובליליהן אבל אין מברכין על קריאתה אלא בי"ד הואיל והוא זמן קריאה לרוב העולם:



7) The Maggid Mishneh brings that some hold that the whole concept of reading on the 15th if you are unsure if the city was walled during the time of Yehoshua Bin Nun may not apply outside of Eretz Yisrael. Although the Maggid Mishneh himself feels that you should follow the Rambam this as well may be used a Snif.



ויש מי שכתב שלא חשו לספק זה אלא בא''י שהיו עריהם ידועות בשעת התקנה מחמת דין בית בבתי ערי חומה אבל בח''ל מעיקרא כך התקינו שכל שהוא ספק לא יקראו אלא בי''ד.




I do just want to point out that if you'd be Machmir on Manhattan there would be room to be Machmir (should you so desire) on Queens, Brooklyn, Passaic, Bronx, Monsey, and more depending how you hold about Nireh and Samuch. However:


a. The Birkei Yosef says that any city that we’re Mesupak on whether it is walled or not doesn’t have a Din of Samuch.




  • ברכי יוסף אורח חיים סימן תרפ"ח אות ט'


אם בכרך קרו בי"ד וט"ו מספק, הכפרים הנראים וסמוכים קרו בי"ד, דלא אמרו דהם ככרך אלא כשהכרך קרו בט"ו לבד, אבל אם הכרך עצמו מסופק, הנראה וסמוך קרו בי"ד. הרב משאת משה בתשו' הנז'. והכי מסתברא, דכיון דאעיקרא הא דסמוך ונראה חידוש הוא למגילה, משא"כ בבתי ערי חומה, כמש"ל. תסגי לן ודאן, דקרו בט"ו לחוד, לדרוש סמוכים כמשפטן, אבל היכא דכרכים גופייהו יספוק עלימו, הסמוך ונראה דינן כעיירות דעלמא.



b. Many Poskim explain the R that the Din of Samuch/Nir’eh only applies to a small city that’s secondary to a big city.




ריטב"א ב. סוף ד"ה כרכים המוקפין חומה מיב"ן קורין בט"ו


והכא נמי כל היכא דמגנו ויש בה צד הקף חומה מיב"ן עשאוה כמוקפ' גמורה כגון כרך והסמוך לו דכיון דסמוך לכרך מוקף ומגנו בתוכו בעת צרה ובהדי הדדי קיימי ומשתתפי דינא הוא דליקרו הדי הדדי



medicine - Headache remedy on a fast day?


Even with proper pre-fast hydration and caffeine reduction, I almost always get a headache starting around hour 20-22 of a fast and growing from there. Taking a nap is sometimes possible and sometimes helps a little, but not always. (And on Yom Kippur I sure don't want to risk oversleeping and missing part of neilah.)


Is there anything else I can do on the fast day when the headache starts to reduce its effects?


(Even if I had a heter to take medicine (which I don't), all painkillers that I'm aware of do bad things when taken on an empty stomach, and at that point in the day the stomach is quite empty.)




filters - What is the difference between phase delay and group delay?


I'm studying some DSP and I'm having trouble understanding the difference between phase delay and group delay.


It seems to me that they both measure the delay time of sinusoids passed through a filter.



  • Am I correct in thinking this?

  • If so, how do the two measurements differ?

  • Could someone give an example of a situation in which one measurement would be more useful than the other?



UPDATE


Reading ahead in Julius Smith's Introduction to Digital Filters, I've found a situation where the two measurements at least give different results: affine-phase filters. That's a partial answer to my question, I guess.



Answer



First of all the definitions are different:



  • Phase delay: (the negative of) Phase divided by frequency

  • Group delay: (the negative of) First derivative of phase vs frequency


In words that means:




  • Phase delay: Phase angle at this point in frequency

  • Group delay: Rate of change of the phase around this point in frequency.


When to use one or the other really depends on your application. The classical application for group delay is modulated sine waves, for example AM radio. The time that it takes for the modulation signal to get through the system is given by the group delay not by the phase delay. Another audio example could be a kick drum: This is mostly a modulated sine wave so if you want to determine how much the kick drum will be delayed (and potentially smeared out in time) the group delay is the way to look at it.


halacha - Can I cut to my kippah to make it smaller?


I have a nice black silk kippah, the only problem is that it's too big. Can i cut around to make it smaller? Is there holiness in Kippa, is there a prohibition to cut it?



Answer



A kippah is not a sacred garment. (The Star-K had found people putting worn-out kippahs in a disposal box intended for worn-out scrolls, which must be buried. So they had to mention that a worn-out kippah may be thrown in the trash!)


A kippah is a hat. If you feel like cutting it, go right ahead. Practically I don't know how the edges will then look, but you can figure that out.


A more interesting question is how big should a kippah be for the sake of fulfilling the custom of wearing one. (You can ask a separate question about that.) Assuming you'll be wearing something big enough, cut away!


halacha - Binding answers for Halachic questions


I recall learning that one is not allowed to "venue shop" by asking a series of rabbis for a practical halachic ruling and following the opinion you like. I was taught that one should ask and be bound by the answer he receives (in fact, in my community, the women kept a loose track of which rabbi was most understanding for which type of question and would choose a rabbi to ask based on the desired, or at least expected, outcome).


A couple of related questions develop from this:



  1. How binding are volumes of Sh"UT? If I look up a halacha in one of them, is that my "ask and answer" process or can I reject it, and read more responsa, or then ask a rabbi?


1a. Are sifrei halacha binding? If I read one code, may I then go and read another if I am looking for a particular answer?



  1. Are online chats and "ask the rabbi" emails binding?

  2. Are websites which catalogue psaks and allow the user to plug in a question and get an answer binding? (I tried the http://www.practicalhalacha.com/ site and after a very machmir answer to my question, it also said CYLOR)



Mi Yodeya takes great pains to say that issues are not paskened here and one should, for any practical question, consult a rabbi. Other websites don't make that demand and seem to say that they are valid structures for adjudicating issues so I am wondering the parameters of their authority.


A final bit of clarification -- I am asking about the theory of practical halachic rulings, not FOR a halachic rulling. I don't think.




Negative present endings translated as past tense


I've seen certain translations where I feels like there's a shift in the tenses.


Ex: なぜ早く言わない!? translated to "Why didn't you say so sooner!?"


In fact, I've experienced a lot of cases where a character says the word in it's negative present form in Japanese. For example, imagine a scene where a sibling fails to wake up the other for some big event. In this case, the other sibling would say "Why didn't you wake me up"(past) instead of "Why don't you wake me up"(nonpast). However, what I see instead in Japanese is 起きてくれない instead of 起きてくれなかった.


Any explanation on the system here would be appreciated.




Saturday, April 29, 2017

time - How can I make a long summer shabbat a delight?


Where I live, shabbat ends at nearly 10PM at the peak of summer, and I find it challenging to get to the end of that without starting to develop some negative feelings. I try to spend most of Shabbat afternoon reading, but due to some eye problems I'm finding it more and more difficult to read for more than a couple hours at a stretch from books/magazines (where I of course can't change the font size). I don't have family to "do shabbat" with, and my community doesn't have a lot of afternoon shiurim or other get-togethers. I sometimes take a walk in the park to break up the afternoon.


So what else could I do between lunch and sunset on these long days so that Shabbat will feel like a delight and not a long slog?




Answer





  • Nap.


    As the OU has it:



    Extra sleep is also considered appropriate and desirable on Shabbat, in line with the principle of "Shayna b'Shabbat Taanug," "(Extra) Sleep on Shabbat is considered a Delight!"






  • Start your own afternoon gathering. You don't need to be super-learned or invest a great deal of time to start very interesting and worthwhile discussions.




kohen priest - What did kohanim do the other fifty weeks of the year?


I remember learning (somewhere in talmud but can't remember where) that the kohanim were divided into 24 groups and they rotated service in the temple. And they went to Yerushalayim for the chagim, of course. My question is: what did they do the rest of the time? They didn't own land, so I presume they lived in the Levitical cities. Doing what?



Answer



The kohanim were divided into 24 mishmarim, and each mishmar was divided into batei av. So (aside from holidays when all of the kohanim worked), kohanim worked in the beit hamikdash only 2 days a year.


The answer that I heard (and I forget who said it, probably the Chofetz Chaim) was that a single day working in the beit hamkidash took 6 months of preparation. The kohanim were supposed to be free to be torah scholars, and that's why they're supported by terumah.


Of course, there were kohanim who were amei ha'aretz. Since their knowledge of Torah doesn't reflect spending 6 months of study between visits to the beit hamikdash, they must have spent their time running businesses or something like that. (And it should be noted, that the gemara strongly recommeded against giving one's terumah to kohanim who were amei ha'aretz.)


phase - What happens if you cool water in a container too small for it to freeze?



Freezing a full bottle of water tends to shatter the glass bottle. What if you used something tougher than glass, like diamond? What would happen if you kept dropping the temperature, but restrained the liquid volume so it couldn't freeze and what sort of force would the liquid exert on the container's walls?



Answer



Good question. Let's assume the container is infinitely strong, non-deformable, and constant in volume. Let's also assume that cooling the water is an equilibrium process -- that way, we won't have any supercooling.


At equilibrium, the first tiny bit of ice that freezes will take up more volume than the water it froze from. This will raise the pressure on the rest of the water. Eventually the pressure may get so high that additional freezing of more water is not thermodynamically favored.


Of course, as the pressure is raised, even the solid ice compresses a bit, freeing up a bit more volume for the liquid water. According to this paper from 2004, ice is less compressible than water, so as a starting assumption, it may be approximately true to neglect the ice compression effect.


Figure 4 from that same paper gives the freezing point depression of water as a function of pressure:


enter image description here


To fully answer your question, in addition to that data, an equation that gives pressure as a function of ice volume would also be needed. If we make the assumption I was talking about above -- i.e. that ice is incompressible, then from the data point that water has a constant compressibility of 46.4 ppm per atm we can come up with a very simple version of that equation.


$\frac{\Delta V_{water}}{V_{water}}=46.4 \times 10^{-6} \times P$, where P is the pressure in atmospheres.


Before freezing of a fraction $X$ of the water:



$$V_{ice} = X V_{tot}$$ $$V_{water} = (1-X) V_{tot}$$


After freezing:


$$ V_{ice} = X V_{tot} 1.11 $$ $$ V_{water} = (1-X) V_{tot} - \Delta V_{ice} $$


Combining those equations, you can get


$$0.11 \frac{X}{k(1-X)}= P$$, where $k$ is the compressibility of water. If even 1% of the water in the container freezes (and all our assumptions are true), then the pressure will be 24 atmospheres! Freezing 10% of the water would mean a pressure of 260 atmospheres. Looking at the chart above, reaching this point would require a temperature of only 271 or 272 K, i.e. only -1 °C or -2°C. Freezing 45% of the water would reach a pressure of 2000 atm, already off the chart above -- but the temperature required to reach that point would only be 253K or -20 °C, the setting of the average home residential freezer! ((Of course, at these extreme pressures, (i) ice is actually compressible, and (ii) the compressibility of liquid water is not constant but also a function of pressure, so the calculations would get quite a bit more complicated.))


The lesson is that for even moderate degrees of cooling, you'd need a very, very strong container.


halacha - When does Shabbat officially start?



I am confused about the exact/official time of Shabbat starting. Is it 18 minutes before sunset, when the candles are lit, or at sunset?




Chain of tradition for stories/parables told by Rashi



I've already asked one question about where Rashi got a particularly troubling interpretation of an obscure reference in the Gemara, telling a very detailed and gruesome story about R' Meir and his wife Beruriah.


In another instance (Bab. Sanhedrin 39a) Rashi expands in great detail upon a vague reference in the Gemara in which R' Yohanan says he knows of only three of the 300 parables about foxes taught by R' Meir to expound on Pesukim. R"Y gives a very short list, referring to the lessons by key phrases in their associated verses, and then Rashi tells us the story R"Y is referring to. But he doesn't just tell us a name for the story ("The Fox, the Wolf, and the Well") or give a watered down version of it ("A fox tricks a wolf into a well by showing him the moon's reflection down there and telling him it's cheese"). No. Rashi, who usually writes very curtly about simple concepts to aid the reader in understanding the basic meaning of a passage in the Gemara, goes into full-on story-teller mode, for 4 long lines and 10+ short lines, using almost 1/4 of the real estate on the "Rashi side" of the printed Vilna edition of the Gemara.


Where do these amazing stories come from in Rashi? Does he have a source? Were they taught orally by his teacher's teacher's teacher's teacher's teacher (however many times), dating all the way back to R' Meir? Are they (usually, generally, occasionally??) recorded elsewhere in works that are traceable/accountable?




grammar - This instance of のに is opposite from my expectations


I have this sentence in one of my JLPT practise books:



電子{でんし}レンジは冷{さ}めた料理{りょうり}を温{あたた}めるのに重宝{ちょうほう}だ。




I thought のに meant something like "in spite of". So, to me, this sentence seems to be saying that a microwave oven is convenient (or a "precious treasure") in spite of the fact that it warms cold food.


... but, isn't that exactly what a microwave oven is supposed to do? Shouldn't the sentence be something more like:



電子{でんし}レンジは冷{さ}めた料理{りょうり}を温{あたた}めるので重宝{ちょうほう}だ。



Is this a typo, or is のに used in another way that make sense here?



Answer



のに can have several meanings, "despite" being the most common one. But it can also mean "in order to" (~のため). Here are some examples (taken from here):



パスポートは海外旅行に行くのに必要です。

A passport is necessary to travel abroad.


電子レンジは冷めた料理を温めるのに重宝だ。
A microwave is handy to heat up cold food.



Molar concentration calculation with absolute uncertainty


A solution of $\ce{F-}$ is prepared by dissolving $(0.0933\pm0.0004)\ \mathrm g$ of $\ce{NaF}$ $(M= (41.989\pm0.001)\ \mathrm {g/mol})$ in $156.00\pm\ \mathrm{mL}$ of water. Calculate the concentration of $\ce{F-}$ in the solution and its absolute uncertainty.


First of all, uncertainty aside, I got $0.0141$ for the concentration of $\ce{F-}$. However, this is not the correct answer (according to Sapling Learning).


Furthermore, what technique should I use to find the absolute uncertainty?




Do electrons in an atom revolve around the the nucleus clockwise or counterclockwise?




Do electrons in an atom revolve around the the nucleus clockwise or counterclockwise?


Is there any rule to determine?




matlab - Causal Noise Free 1st Order Derivative in Discrete Domain


I need to have causal noise free first order derivation (Derivative). Now I am using a simple finite differences formula:


$$ \frac{ x \left( n \right) - x \left( n - 1 \right) }{ {T}_{s} } $$


The filter above, being High Pass, is super sensitive to noise. Do we have a noise free or noise reduced first order differentiation which does not need more than three point for calculation?




Friday, April 28, 2017

names - Why didn't Hashem call twice to Yitzchak like he did to other prophets?


Avraham Avraham, Yaakov Yaakov, Moshe Moshe, Shmuel Shmuel - why not Yitzchok Yitzchok?



Related to Hashem calls people twice and Hinneni



We find in Tanach that Hashem called Avraham Avraham, Yaakov Yaakov, Moshe Moshe, Shmuel Shmuel. Why if this is a language of affection (ילקוט שמעוני - שמואל א - פרק ג - רמז צז), and showing that the person remained the same even after Hashem spoke to them and even after they were elevated to their positions - why do we not find the same by Yitzchok?




translation - What does ぉ character mean in のぉ?


Can somebody explain the purpose of ぉ character in the end of the following sentence?


What part of speech can be assigned to ぉ ?


Can the ending の be glued up with ぉ?



アドビにうまいことやられたのぉ




Answer



It seems to just be an emphatic, stylistic lengthening of the preceding it.



May one leave a paper having G-d's name in a place where it is likely to be descrated?


A few days ago, at the Atlantic Ave. subway station in Brooklyn, I noticed some Chaba"d-oriented segulah pamphlets sitting on the staircase ledge. I took one and notice that it hadTehillim with the printed 4-letter name of G-d in it.


The pamphlets were on a public stairway ledge. Millions of people pass by this area and put their hands on the stairway ledge and between the wind from the trains and people passing by, people's hand movement on the ledge, these pamphlets would most likely end up on the floor and trampled on by others. Non-Jews (as an example) may pick up the pamphlet for curiosity and then dump it in the garbage. It seems quite likely that this pamphlet would be desecrated.


Is one allowed to place such pamphlets or similar material in this way where it is quite likely that eventually it will be "mishandled"?




reward punishment - "Hit him with a hammer until he pays attention!" Literally?


Abaye makes a rather harsh judgment on someone who is unattentive in prayer (Ber. 34a): Hit him with a hammer until he pays attention!


Is this meant to be taken as Halachah? Or is it just meant to dismiss R' Papa's suggestion that it may be alright to repeat words if you weren't paying attention at first?




This question is part of the Daf Yomi Challenge.




clothing - Kriyah at the Kosel for Women


Do women tear Kriyah at the kosel?



Answer



The answer is Yes (as it says in SHU"T Minchas Shlomo 1:76).


(Shu"t Ginat Veradim 14:5:8) says that a women should tear the inner garment as if not, it would involve a breach of dignity.


Order of the Tanach



In Nevi'im and Ketuvim, why is the order of the books that we use today different from the order given in Bava Batra 14b, and Rambam Hilchot Sefer Torah 7:15?




nuances - Politeness / Respectfulness / Humility / Formality


The wikipedia article "Honorific speech in Japanese" states that



Japanese has grammatical functions to express several different emotions. Not only politeness but also respectfulness, humility and formality can be expressed.



After learning about the humble/honorific etc. forms, I am trying to wrap my head around these concepts. After checking some textbooks and websites, I came up with the following distinction, could someone please check, whether it is ok?



  • Politeness: this is expressed by using the です・ます forms instead of the plain form

  • Respectfulness: one can express respect to someone else's actions by using the honorific form (尊敬語{そんけいご})

  • Humility: one can humbly speak about one's own actions using the humble form (謙譲語{けんじょうご})


  • Formality: in formal writing, one uses the literary style by replacing だ → である and です → であります after nouns and na-adjectives. There is no difference for verbs and I-adjectives.


As far as I understand, one can combine most of these aspects, e.g.




not polite, not respectful, not humble, not formal: だ


not polite, not respectful, not humble, formal: である


not polite, not respectful, humble, formal: でござる


polite, not respectful, humble, formal: でございます




but respectfulness and humility are mutually exclusive.




Answer



First of all, I appreciate that this is a difficult subject, not least because when trying to research it, in English, the terms "honorifics" "respectfulness" "formality" "politeness" etc. often get used differently by different people. I'll try to stick to your terminology, but apologies if I slip up!




Your understanding is correct: you can't combine "respectful" and "humble" forms grammatically, as they make reference to another's or one's own (/one's in-group's) actions, respectively. They are thus at opposite ends of the same "honorific" spectrum of {respectful 尊敬語 OR neutral OR humble 謙譲語}, in that in being either respectful or humble, you are creating a difference in 'level' between you and the other party. In being respectful, you directly exalt the other party; in being humble, you indirectly exalt the other party, through deprecating yourself.


The important thing to remember is the {polite です・ます OR non-polite だ・る} choice primarily depends on your relationship to the listener (ignoring the idea of switching between polite and non-polite within a conversation... see Question about switching formality in a conversation for more detail...).


On the other hand, the {respectful 尊敬語 OR neutral OR humble 謙譲語} choice is about the relationship between actors in the sentence. Of course, they are often the same, but not always (e.g. speaking to your friend about a teacher, you might choose to index your 'respect' for the teacher by using 尊敬語 or 謙譲語, but you presumably would speak in non-polite speech to your friend).


Grammatically speaking, you therefore have two spectra:




  • {polite です・ます OR non-polite だ・る}





  • {respectful 尊敬語 OR neutral OR humble 謙譲語}.




The {formal OR informal} choice, as broccoli forest notes, is the "odd one out", in the sense it is not determined by grammar, but stylistic decisions appropriate for the medium/context in which you are communicating, including word choice. I see it as the difference between すごく and 大変, このあいだ and 先日, どうですか and いかがですか, いいです and 結構です (when refusing something), etc.


The interesting case, I think, is choosing to use an irregular keigo verb, which would impart e.g. formality as well as respect, say 食べる vs. 召し上がる. So that begs the question: is 召し上がる more formal than other acceptable regular keigo forms 食べられる or お食べになる? I would say the answer is: yes.


Incidentally, I also understand that the usage of お食べになる is increasing amongst younger people, which is possibly a reflection of those younger people be(com)ing "less formal" than their older counterparts; or, perhaps they want make a statement that they aren't inclined to guard or protect formal language.


In any case, formality is a much more fuzzy concept than politeness and respectfulness, given formality is not strictly determined by grammar.


Thursday, April 27, 2017

How to obtain impulse response from the differential equation of a system?


This year I'm having trouble with my Signals and Systems class. My major subject is Software Engineering and Electric and Electrical Engineering is my Minor. This question was my previous exam question but I coudn't write anything about it as a solution. If somebody could at least show a way to solve this problem it would be great.


Question:

$$\frac{d^2y(t)}{dt^2}+\frac{6dy(t)}{d(t)}+8y(t)=2x(t)$$ a) Find impulse response $h(t)$
b) Find output $y(t)$ if $x(t)=te^{-2t}u(t)$


I know that $h(t) = \frac {y(t)}{x(t)}$, and i m guessing that i can get that using z-transform but I don't know how to and if it is the correct way.


Thanks in advance...


EDIT:
Here is what I have done so far. Photo of my Work Done

From here, to find the output I think I will use convolution.? y(t) = h(t)*x(t)


I used Laplace transform to find the inverse fourier transform of the function H(jw). What was I going to do if Laplace transform would not be suitable to situation?




Answer



It looks like your transfer function is correct, but there's a small mistake in your partial fraction expansion:


$$H(s)=\frac{2}{(s+4)(s+2)}=\frac{1}{s+2}-\frac{1}{s+4}\tag{1}$$


The corresponding impulse response is


$$h(t)=(e^{-2t}-e^{-4t})u(t)\tag{2}$$


The response to $x(t)=te^{-2t}u(t)$ is indeed most easily computed by solving the convolution integral:


$$y(t)=u(t)\int_0^tx(\tau)h(t-\tau)d\tau\tag{3}$$


I leave the exercise of solving $(3)$ up to you, but if I'm not mistaken the result should be


$$y(t)=\frac{1}{4}e^{-2t}\left[2t^2-2t+1-e^{-2t}\right]u(t)\tag{4}$$


sources mekorot - Are there different types of fasts from a Torah/halacha perspective?


Generally speaking, when people think about fasting in terms of Torah, they are thinking about the type of fasting associated to the 9th of Av or Yom Kippur, meaning neither eating nor drinking. This is related to the idea of rising above the physical/material plane of existence.


In the context of a one day fast, or even a two day fast, that is possible, but is also a severe strain on the body.


However, in the context of making a tikkun over past transgressions, the number of fasts prescribed in Torah is often many more days than simply a day or two. See for example the references in the Tanya in Igeret HaTeshuvah at the end of chapter 1 to Sefer Rokeach and Mishnat Chassidim and also in chapter 3 there.


Medically speaking, fasting, meaning abstinence from eating, is something that can be done for many, many days consecutively. The longest consecutive fast from eating on record is over a year. While a total fast, abstinence from both eating and drinking can only be survived three to five days. The abstinence from water is the critical factor.


Does the Torah make a distinction between types of fasts? The Aramaic word for fast is תענית from the Hebrew ענה. The Hebrew root has a connotation of to respond or to answer (as in answering for improper actions) and also to deprive, or to delay, or to submit/become humble or to become poor. All of these relate to the idea of depriving oneself of food in humility and an act of submission to G-d's will.



The consequence being that one burns their excess body fat, which is compared to burning the fat of an offering on the altar brought in the Temple, like is mentioned in the Tanya for example.


So the focus seems to be about the burning of body fat, which relates to the eating of food only.




kashrut kosher - Is Pork, Camel, and the like Fleishig?


If one somehow consumed meat of a non-kosher species such as camel or pork (e.g. life-threatening illness, or by accident), does s/he become Fleishig?


Why or why not?



Answer




The reason one "becomes fleishig", i.e. cannot eat dairy after eating meat, is because of remaining meat in his mouth or esophagus which he cannot have with milk. Now, the Shach and Taz (and Baer Hetev after them, all at 87:3) say there's no meat-and-milk prohibition on eating milk with pork (or other non-kosher animals), so I'd have to assume there's also no problem with eating it afterward. But, as always, CYLOR with practical questions.


halacha - Blessing on a food or a drink first?


If someone has in front of them a food and drink that the bracha (blessing) of both is shehakol which one should he make a blessing on first? Assuming that he doesn't prefer one over the other. Is there a reason to make a bracha on the food first before the drink?


(I have no reason to think a bracha should be made on the food first if they are both shehakol however I've heard that perhaps the Caf HaChaim speaks about this and have not found it. Perhaps there are other poskim as well that address this issue or savaras (reasoning) one way or another.)




midrash - If Sarah's Death is a "Merit" for Cheshvan, Why Isn't Moshe's Death a "Merit" for Adar?



When I was young(er) I used to listen to to Toravision's Purim Story tape. (Yeah, I know, I'm dating myself.) It's a great tape, and the older I've gotten, the more it's amazed me how close the tape is to everything Chazal has said about the story.


One of the things that bothered me was the part where Haman is casting lots. Every time he tries to pick a month, the heavenly voice calls out a "merit" that the month has, which "protects" the Jews from being destroyed in that month. (This part of the tape seemed to be lifted straight from Midrash.) For the month of Cheshvan, the heavenly voice says "Sarah Imeinu Meisa" ("Sarah our matriarch died"), and Haman abandons that month, just like all the others. Apparently, Haman sees Sarah's death as a protecting merit for the Jews.


Why is the death of a tzaddik/tzaddekes a "protection" for that month?
And why doesn't Haman see Moshe's death as a merit for Adar?



Answer



Rabbi Shlomo Halevi Alkabetz (author of Lecha Dodi) wrote a commentary of the Megilla called "Manos Halevi". (It is said that he sent the book to his fiance in lieu of "Shalach Manos", since he was poor and could not afford to send her food). He addresses this question, and suggests that perhaps Moshe's death was considered a bad indication for the Jews because his death was brought about through a sin committed by them (see also the Iyun Yaakov).


Alternately, many explain (Chidushei Harada"l and the Yefeh Anaf there (quoted in footnote 25 here), R' Dovid Sabah in "Maskil Ledovid", Ma'am Loez) that Sarah's death came as a result of her hearing the news of Akedas Yitzchok and this is the merit the Midrash is referring to.


The Iyun Yaakov suggests that after Moshe Rabbeynu died it is said that "לא קם כמשה עוד" - the Jewish people suffered an irreplaceable loss, and this was considered a bad omen. Whereas, after Sarah passed away, her place was filled by Rivka.


Rabbi Yonosan Eibeshitz answers (Yaaros Devash vol. 1 Drush 3 "Veheni Oid Taam") that Haman reasoned (in his distorted understanding) that if Moshe Rabbeynu who was an expert in sorcery could do nothing to prevent his death, this is a bad sign for the Jews.


reference request - Channel Shortening for underwater acoustic channel communication


I'm new in this forum, hope that we can learn from each other well. I need to ask about the channel shortening for underwater acoustic channel.


what are the common algorithms in that field? is there a common source code in MATLAB which is used to be compared with such new algorithms?


I don't see many papers in that field, why?


please help me,


thank you so much.



Answer



When I see "channel shortening," I think of DFE coefficient calculations, regardless of the application. This is used in cases from simple DFE equalization to channel shortening for xDSL with DMT to lessen CP requirements or for RSSE in single-carrier systems. The point is not to actually do a DFE; rather, the point is to use the coefficient calculation and paradigm.


The classical DFE architecture is to have two filters: a feedforward (FF) filter and feedback (FB) filter with a slicer after the FB subtraction and decision-directed feedback passed through the FB filter. The intent is to use a FF filter to compress the residual channel response into a smaller number of taps than you started with. For DFE applications, the intent is also to transform a possibly non-mininum phase response to minimum phase to reduce error propagation. The desired structure is to have a FF filter that is (close to) all-pass and simply transforming phase, while the FB taps of the DFE represent the residual channel. That said, the concept of compressing the channel into a shortened response can generalize to the case where the FF filter is not all-pass. In this case, it looks more like a FF equalizer for a partial-response system.



I suggest investigating DFE coefficient calculation and motivations to see approaches for channel shortening. It may also be instructive to look at partial-response literature. In the case of PR, you may see descriptions of equalization to a predetermined response, but it can also be used more generally for compression of a response into a reduced number of taps.


shabbat - Lechem Mishneh : holding challos procedure



What's the exact procedure for holding the challos in lechem mishneh. I'm not asking about the number of challos used or which one to cut (top / bottom) but how do we hold them :



  • do we hold them with the mat or do we take it off before the beracha ?

  • do we hold the challos bottom on bottom or bottom on top ?

  • how exactly must we hold them to have the bottom one nearer on friday night ? by leaning them ?

  • does both hands must touch both challos or the right hand grab one and the left the other ?

  • after the beracha do we move apart on the table the one we don't cut and only grasp the one we're cutting ?


Thanks for your help



Answer




We can condense this into three questions:




  1. When do we take the cover off of the challos?


    There are 3 reasons for covering the challos. The first is to teach us sensitivity (interpretation of the Yerushalmi, alt. the cover makes the challah as if it isn't there). Per the pasuk on which our sages based the order of saying brachos, bread should have precedence over wine. Although we may not eat the bread until after kiddush, we practice sensitivity and cover the bread so that the bread, so to speak, won't experience the moment. Accordingly, after the bracha of hagafen, the cover can be removed. (Magen Avraham 271:20)


    The second reason is to recall the manna (which fell double on erev shabbos- hence the 2 loaves) which was covered above and below with a protective dew. Accordingly, the cover above and below should be kept until after hamotzi. Although the Mishna Berurah 271:41 says that the Pri Megadim implies that even according to reason 2 you can take the cover off after kiddush, with the Chayei Adam preferring it remain covered.


    A third reason applies even if you are in the middle of a seudah where the bread is covered during kiddush and then removed to show that the seudah moving forward is to honor shabbos. Here also you can take it off after kiddush. (Magen Avraham 271:20)




  2. The Shulchan Aruch says to cut the bottom Challah on Friday night. How do we pass up the mitzvah of cutting the top challah?



    As you alluded to in your question there are a number of options if you choose to "pass up the mitzva" of the Shulchan Aruch and go for another option which includes cutting the bottom and not passing over the mitzva. One option is to switch the challos after Vayechulu of kiddush (top to bottom). Another is to cut both challos. Another is to hold the bottom one closer. The third is what I have seen the most. There doesn't seem to be a specific rule for how to hold it. All of these options are just seeking practical solutions to being caught between halachik preferences (See the language of the nos'ei keilim O.C. 275). The same goes for moving the 2nd challah away if you are not cutting it like option 2- whatever works for you practically.




  3. As for holding the challos- both challos are included in the bracha. So, you should hold both with your 10 fingers on both and customarily raise both at Hashem's name. (M.B 167:23)




grammar - How to say 'in 10 minutes' as in 'the bus comes in 10 minutes'?


Would the sentence below make sense?




バスがじゅっぷんにきます。





Wednesday, April 26, 2017

halacha - Order for tevilah and kashering


This is an extension of this question.



If one purchases used keilim from a non-Jew which would require both tevilah and kashering, which order is prescribed: tevilah then kashering or kashering then tevilah?




computational chemistry - GAMESS and Gaussian : what is the maximum efficient number of supported nodes?


I have looked at GAMESS and Gaussian manuals but can not find the maximum number of efficient nodes. As I tried GAMESS on our supercomputer, I can add as many CPUs as I want but it really does not Improve the calculation time and efficacy . On the other hand just adding maximum number of CPUs is just waste of CPU-Hour time and resources.


Is there any criteria for selection of best number of CPUs for optimum resource usage ?



Answer





Is there any criteria for selection of best number of CPUs for optimum resource usage?



The criteria is basically the same as for choosing the level of theory: benchmarking. Parallel scaling depends on many factors: the level of theory, the size of the molecule, the machine architecture, etc., so there is no golden rule.


Though from my experience I can say that Gaussian 09 single point energy, geometry optimisation and frequencies calculations:



  • scale well for HF & DFT up to 16 physical cores;

  • scale well for MP2 up to 8 physical cores;

  • almost do not scale for CI & CC.



Also note that Gaussian 09 is about 2 times faster for almost any kind of calculations than the previous version (Gaussian 03) and doesn't suffer from some awkwardly strange memory effects (see e.g. here).


halacha - Why do some women light additional shabbat candles for the past weeks they didn't light?


Some women have the custom to light an additional shabbat candle for every week which, for whatever reason, they did not have a chance to light shabbat candles in the past. For example, if a woman with 2 kids did not light candles on 3 occasions at various times in the past, she would light a total of 7 candles (2 + 2 kids + 3 for missed weeks) every shabbat, indefinitely. One woman I know who is newly observant (ba'al teshuva) only lights additional candles for weeks she missed starting when she became observant. Where did this custom originate? What is the basis for the custom? Is there a limit as to how many additional candles one should light, both in terms of number of additional candles per week and in how long you should persist in lighting the additional candles? Is there a basis for not counting the weeks before you became observant? Any other "exceptions"?



Answer



This is mentioned in the following places. Darchei Moshe 263:1, Rama 1, Shulchan Aruch HaRav 1, Chayai Adam Shabbos 5:13, Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 75:14, Aruch HaShulchan 11, Kaf HaChaim 10. If she forgot many times then she adds for each time she forgot Magen Avraham 3, Shulchan Aruch Harav 1, Chayai Adam ibid, Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 75:14, Mishnah Berurah 7, Aruch HaShulchan ibid.



The reason for this, is that it is a (Knas) punishment in order that she should not forget.


Subjectivity in Halacha


I'm learning the Sugya of pas haba'ah b'kisnin. This seems like an extraordinary area of Halacha, because the beracha on this type of food is entirely subjective, based on what others would be koveah a seudah (what would count as a meal). Also, the Rosh says that young children and elderly people don't need to eat the same amount of food to qualify for meal as say, a middle aged man.


Does this kind of subjectivity exist in any other realm within Halacha?



Answer



Yes: a number of areas of halacha depend on what is usual in the place and time. One I can think off the top of my head is: Some pos'kim have held one can smoke cigarettes or take a hot shower on yom tov because that was shave l'chol nefesh (widely done) at those times and in those places; they would agree that such would be forbidden when smoking and showering are not shave l'chol nefesh. (See the last Beur Halacha on 511 re smoking; probably sources on showering are also on Orach Chayim 511 (though not in the Beur Halacha).)


translation - 分 in 今回は単行本第三巻予定分から


I'm trying to translate somebody's tweet, and I'm just blocking on this one bit. I understand every part ("単行本", "第三巻", "予定", "から"), except the "分", of course. I know what the kanji "分" means individually, but I'm not sure what it's supposed to designate in this sentence.


Here is the full sentence:




今回は単行本第三巻予定から、第二話と第三話をまとめました



I can't quite get if it's supposed to mean basically "part of 単行本", or I've went as far as to exaggerate the translation and say "chapter" for it, because of "第二" and "第三". Maybe that's just a problem of sentence structure, and what part/word 分 is connected to, or maybe that's just an expression with から or 予定 (which in that case I'm not seeing, despite checking in dictionaries), in any case, I'm just really blocked on this one kanji and its meaning in the phrase.




halacha - Why is it necessary to ask a Rabbi?



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names - "Ashkenazim" and "Sephardim," for example


Please excuse the crossword-puzzle-clue style of the title...


What is a or the technical name for the distinction between Ashkenazim and Sephardim, and/or the class or category that both of these labels belong to?


I have seen them referred to as "groups," "subcultures," "ethnic groups," or "divisions," but none of these labels seems very precise. What is? (English or Hebrew.)


Zero points for "isotopes," "moieties," or "Why would you need a term?"


Related: The Split Between Sefardim and Ashkenazim



Answer



Here are just a few possibilities in Hebrew (I don't speak Hebrew, so please forgive me--and let me know--if some are way off):



  • אגודת - Indeed used with this meaning


  • ציבור -?

  • עם (Not the best)

  • יהדות--Roughly "Jewry" (countable)--In frequent use with this meaning--see here

  • קהילה

  • ממוצא -- In frequent use, but lacks the sought degree of precision

  • בית, insofar as בית יוסף -- Bet Yosef -- is a common metonymy for Sephardic practice and Sephardim as a group

  • "Ancestry": שושלת ,יוחסין ,צאצאי -? . English: Nation, clan, race, ethnicity

  • כלל -?

  • קבוצת - Used moderately often, as here

  • Nusach, דרך, minhag, mesorah, שרשרת. English: tradition, ritual, rite



. ..And here are the words I've found that come closest to being actual answers to my question:


עדה - Eida /edah, eidot -- To be found here and here, among many other places. In short, "eidot" is the answer to my question -- although Lital Levy interestingly notes (in Poetic Trespass: Writing between Hebrew and Arabic in Israel/Palestine) that in Modern Hebrew, the term is used almost exclusively to distinguish, and subalternate, Sephardi Jews, and refers only rarely to Ashkenazim. She notes further that "Modern Hebrew has no neutral words for race or ethnicity" (41, n. 85, and 82, n. 71)


"Shevet" -- שֵׁבֶט -- may be a misnomer, since it means "tribe," and there is only a sketchy correlation between the Tribes of Israel and the modern eidos. But it is in fairly frequent (mis)use for this purpose, as seen here and here.


For academic treatment of the lack of words in modern Hebrew to describe this divide, see Words and Stones: The Politics of Language and Identity in Israel By Daniel Lefkowitz, pp. 15-16, 83-88, et passim.


commentaries - Why does it say to love HaShem meodecha


The verse of Devarim 6:5 reads: Love HaShem your G'd, with all your heart bechol levav'cha, with all your being uvechol nafshecha, and uvechol ... meodecha.



If I'm correct it's the only place in the whole Tenach where the exact rendering of * uvechol meodecha* occurs, whcih I used to translate as something like: and with all more you have (within you); Meodecha literally, from Meod-very, meaning your total commitment-all you have/are.


The phrase 'with all your heart and all your being' whether it's in singular or plural or whatever tense, seems to be referring to loving HaShem, Teshuvah, Doing Mitzvot, Serve (worship) HaShem and believing in general. All fundamental things which should indeed be done with once's heart and soul.


But why is it when it comes to loving HaShem the term meodecha is added? What makes love different that it needs our meod?




Tuesday, April 25, 2017

filter bank - Understanding multirate filtering fundamentals


I am having trouble grasping some of the fundamental concepts of multirate filtering. I see from various sources that the basic building blocks of a multirate filter are the dyadic analysis and synthesis blocks.




  • Question 1:


    The analysis block structure looks like the following, where the wide band signal is split into lowpass and highpass bands, each with a cutoff of FS/4 (Nyquist/2). Each band is then decimated by a factor of 2.


    enter image description here


    How can you accurately represent the signal in the high frequency band when it contains frequency information above the Nyquist limit of the new decimated sample rate?





  • Question 2:


    The analysis block structure looks like the following, where the sub-band signal is interpolated, re-filtered and then summed.


    enter image description here


    What is the purpose of the second filtering?





Answer



I will answer question 2 first, and hopefully that will help explain what is going on with question 1.


When you sample a baseband signal there are implicit aliases of the baseband signal at all integer multiples of the sampling frequency, as shown in the picture below. Assymetric baseband signal w/ aliases The solid image is the original baseband signal, and the aliases are represented by the dashed images. I chose an assymetric (i.e. complex) signal to help demonstrate the inversion that happens at odd multiples of the sampling frequency.


You might ask, "Do the aliases really exist?" It's a bit of a philosophical question. Yes, in a mathematical sense they do exist, because all of the aliases (including the baseband signal) are indistinguishable from each other.



When you upsample by inserting zeros in between the original samples, you are effectively increasing the sampling rate by the upsample rate. So if you upsample by a factor of two (putting one zero in between each sample), you increase your sampling rate and the Nyquist rate by a factor of 2, resulting in the picture below. Upsampled assymetric baseband signal


As you can see, one of the implicit aliases in the earlier image has now become explicit. If you FFT the samples it will show up. A non-rigorous proof that the DFT transform does not fundamentally change is given below.


Now that you have the two explicit aliases, if you just want the baseband alias then you have to low-pass filter to get rid of the other alias. Sometimes, though, people use the other aliases to do their modulating for them. In that case you would high-pass filter to get rid of the baseband signal. I hope that answers question 2.


Question 1 is basically the inverse of question 2. Suppose that you are already in the situation shown in the second picture. There are two ways to get the baseband signal that you want. The first way is to low-pass filter (thereby getting rid of the higher alias) and then decimating by a factor of two. That gets you to picture #1.


The second way is to high-pass filter (getting rid of the baseband alias) and then decimating by a factor of two. The reason that this works is that you are intentionally aliasing the signal into the baseband, thus, once again, getting you to picture #1.


Why would you want to do it that way? Because in most situations the signals will not be the same, so you can choose which signal you want, or do them both separately.


If you are studying multi-rate processing, I highly recommend getting "Multirate Signal Processing for Communication Systems" by Frederic Harris. He does a really good job of explaining the theory without neglecting the math, and giving a lot of practical advice too.


EDIT: Intentionally sampling a signal at less than the Nyquist rate is called undersampling. The following is my attempt at explaining mathematically why the FFT does not change when you upsample. "x[n]" is the original set of samples, "u" is the upsampling factor, and "x'[n]" is the upsampled set of samples.


$$ \begin{eqnarray*} X[k] &=& \sum_{n=0}^{N-1} x[n]e^{-i2\pi kn/N}\\ X'[k] &=& \sum_{n=0}^{uN-1} x'[n]e^{-i2\pi kn/uN} , \{ &x&'[n] = 0, n \neq mu, m \in (0..N-1)\\ &x&'[n] = x[n/u], n = mu\\ &=& \sum_{n=0}^{N-1} x'[un]e^{-i2\pi kun/uN}\\ &=& \sum_{n=0}^{N-1} x[n]e^{-i2\pi kn/N}\\ &=&X[k] \end{eqnarray*} $$


Apologies for the ugly formatting. I am a LaTex noob.



EDIT 2: I should have pointed out that the DFT's of x[n] and x'[n] are not truly identical. The sample rate is higher, which as I explained in the earlier part of the answer, causes aliases to be "exposed". I was trying to point out in my non-mathematician way that the DFT's are, aside from the sample rate, the same.


parshanut torah comment - Who sold Yosef, and who knew?



I had always understood that Yosef's brothers sold him to the Ishmaelites. We know that they planned to do so, but during this week's torah reading I noticed this for the first time:



כח וַיַּעַבְרוּ אֲנָשִׁים מִדְיָנִים סֹחֲרִים, וַיִּמְשְׁכוּ וַיַּעֲלוּ אֶת-יוֹסֵף מִן-הַבּוֹר, וַיִּמְכְּרוּ אֶת-יוֹסֵף לַיִּשְׁמְעֵאלִים, בְּעֶשְׂרִים כָּסֶף; וַיָּבִיאוּ אֶת-יוֹסֵף, מִצְרָיְמָה. 28
And there passed by Midianites, merchantmen; and they drew and lifted up Joseph out of the pit, and sold Joseph to the Ishmaelites for twenty shekels of silver. And they brought Joseph into Egypt. (Gen 37:26)



The "they" is ambiguous. It could mean that the brothers had the Midianites do the deed for them -- earlier Reuven says "let not our hand be on him"; the implication is "let's not kill him" but maybe it's more general? Or it could be that the Midianites came along while the brothers were eating and not paying attention, and their plans to do the deed were thrwarted? Rashi's comment on this is just to say that this shows that Yosef was sold several times, which doesn't seem very helpful.


So my questions are:




  1. Did the Midianites act on their own (and collect the money) and the bothers weren't part of the transaction? Or did they act as agents for the brothers?





  2. If the Midianites acted on their own, what did the brothers know? Did they know he'd been sold or only that he was gone from the pit? (Were they possibly as surprised as Yaakov 22 years later upon learning that Yosef was alive?)





Answer



Read this Shi'ur by Menachem Leibtag. http://www.tanach.org/breishit/vayesh/vayeshs1.htm


Here's a teaser for it:


"After throwing your brother into a pit to die, would you be able to sit down to eat? Yosef's brothers did, as the Torah tells us! However, the Torah does not tell us if they sat near the pit, listening to Yosef's screaming and pleading, or if they sat far away from the pit, to enjoy some peace and quiet. So what difference does it make? Believe it or not, this tiny detail affects our understanding of almost every aspect of the story that ensues. In this week's shiur, as we study the story of Yosef and his brothers, we will entertain each of these two possibilities -showing how this 'missing detail' leads several commentators to conclude that the brothers may never have sold Yosef after all!"


Bottom line, Rashi and Radak hold it was the brothers (probably because Yosef accuses them when they are reunited), but others (including Rashba"m and Hizkuni) recognize that this may not be (indeed probably is not) the case. See Menachem's novel explanation regarding Yosef's accusation.



causation - How to use both causative and て欲しい grammar at the same time?


I want to say the following in Japanese.



I want the police officer to make the dog bite the snatcher.



My attempt is as follows.




私は警察官に犬にひったくりを噛ませて欲しい。



Is it correct? Is it possible to use just one に?



Answer




「[私]{わたし}は[警察官]{けいさつかん}[犬]{いぬ}ひったくりを[噛]{か}ませて[欲]{ほ}しい。」



is correct if I have to choose between "correct" and "incorrect".


A little more natural-sounding word order IMHO would be:




「私は警察官、ひったくりを犬に噛ませて欲しい。」



for clarity reasons. Cramming the phrase 「AB」 into the same part of a sentence is not such a great idea even though it is still grammatical.


Finally, if you used 「噛み[付]{つ}かせて」 instead of 「噛ませて」, it would be even more natural.


inorganic chemistry - Why does mercury decolourise a gold ring?


I saw that a gold ring decolourised as it got in contact with mercury . Why does this happen ? Is there any way to reverse this?




halacha - Fighting Wars on Shabbat


As I mentioned in another question, I was reading the Book of Maccabees over Shabbat (I and II).


In the book of Maccabees, it mentions that early on in the struggle, there were a group of Jews hiding out in caves. The Greeks found them and were going to attack them on Shabbat. The Jewish people in the caves, said they would not desecrate Shabbat no matter what, and all got killed.


In response to this, Judah aka Macabeaus, makes a proclamation that it is ok to fight on Shabbat so that they do not all get killed in this manner. Very reasonable.


Centuries later, in the books by Josephus*, Josephus mentions that the Romans were building siege engines, and the Jews would throw down stones to stop the construction. This foiled the Romans, until they started building the siege engines on Shabbat, and noticed that no stones came down on them. Eventually, the Romans only built the siege engines on Shabbat, and the people in Jeruselem got sacked and killed and all sorts of bad things happened. (This was years before the destruction of the temple btw.) Again, a proclamation is made, and the Jews are allowed to fight the Romans on Shabbat.


Later in the Gemorah (Shabbat 19a) (Right before talking about chanukah ironically enough) it is stated that you may not siege a city 3 days before Shabbat. Shamai however states, based on the passuk "Until it is conqureed" that you may siege a city even on Shabbat, until the city is completely taken. (Based on that verse in the Chumash).


Does anyone know what is going on here? Why did the people think they could not fight on Shabbat? Why, 300 years later, did they think so again, and why in the Gemora do they also make the assumption until Shamai says it's ok? Also, why today is it so universally agreed upon that you can break Shabbat when serving in the Army even not during wartime. (If it's ordered/required by the Army to do so)?




  • Quote from Josephus:



"The Jewish War" page 40 (I, 156) (Herod's Predecessors)


Pompey himself on the north side was busy filling in the trench and the entire ravine with material collected by the troops. This was a formidable task, as the depth was immense and the Jews interfered from above in every possible way. The Romans would never have reached the end of their labors if Pompey had not availed himself of the seventh day, on which for religious reasons the Jews will not set their hand to any work, raising the level of his earthworks while keeping his men out of all armed clashes; for only in self-defense will Jews fight on the Sabbath. When at last the ravine was filled in he erected high towers on his artificial platform, brought up the engines he had fetched from Tyre, and began to batter teh walls while the stone throwers prevented any interference from above."





halacha - Is an animal raised on basar bechalav feed permissible


Veal can be raised on formula that contains basar bechalav (a meat and milk mixture) which is asur behana'ah (forbidden to derive benefit from). Would this isur cause the meat from animals exclusively raised from such a formula to be forbidden.


Note that I do not say not kosher but forbidden for other reasons. If this is the case, would using this formula as part of the feed make a difference or not?




minhag - Holocaust Rembrance Day(s)?


What is with the different Holocaust Remembrance Days?


When I was a kid, my entire community observed Yom HaShoah. This came about approximately one week after Pesaḥ. Although I'm not totally sure, I think they must have followed the date observed in Israel, which is 27 Nisan. The particular date was of extreme importance to the organizers, however, because it was essential that all the various Jewish organizations joined together as one community to observe this solemn day, and the March of the Living was also scheduled around that date.


In college, or more precisely, in Yeshivah, I learned that there was some early opposition from religious groups to establish a date for Yom HaShoah, since the fast of the Tenth of Teveth was considered the catch-all for Jewish national tragedies, as is the Sefirah period*.


Nowadays, though, it seems that there are several other, non-religious, internationally recognized dates for Holocaust Remembrance.


So what's going on exactly? What's the history of these divergent observances, and who actually observes them? It still seems to me that Yom HaShoah is the dominant date observed by most people, but is that really true? Recently there was some controversy over an offensive (allegedly antisemitic) cartoon published on one of these dates. It made waves because of the double impact of resembling a blood-libel cartoon from the Nazi era and being published on "Holocaust Remembrance Day" (I think the UN-sanctioned date). But other than its own distastefulness and offensiveness, was this really an issue for most people? I mean, did anyone who is not in tune with internationally-recognized holidays make this connection because they personally observe that date?



*(As explained to me, the Three Weeks, etc., are regarded as unique dates of suffering, not to be associated with general tragedies that didn't befall the Jewish people on those specific dates.)



Answer



January 27th is probably the most universally accepted non-Jewish holocaust remembrance day. It is the anniversary of the day that Soviet Troop liberated Auschwitz-Birkenau in 1945. It was designated by the UN in 2005 and as of 2004 at least 12 countries have some type of official observance on this day. Israel has designated this day, not as a holocaust remembrance day, but as a day to mark the struggle against anti-semitism. Ceremonies are held at the United States Holocaust Museum in Washington DC and in Israel's Yad VaShem. This date has a specifically non-religious character.


Nissan 27 is the most universally accepted Jewish holocaust remembrance day. The date is tied to the Warsaw Ghetto uprising, but is not the actual anniversary. The actual anniversary takes place on the 14th of Nissan, but due to its proximity to Passover the date was moved to the 27th of Nissan. It was officially established by Israel's Prime Minister and President in 1953. Most communities that have a dedicated Holocaust memorial service (generally "Modern" Orthodox) will do so on Yom HaShoah (27 Nissan), while those who remember the Holocaust together with other national tragedies (generally "Yeshivish" Orthodox) will do so on Tisha B'Av or Asara B'Tevet. Some communities will also hold educational events (but not specifically religious services) on Yom HaShoah.


Many Jewish communities will hold educational and other non-religious events on the days designated by their host-countries as "Holocaust Memorial Day" or other days which may be locally designated as such or on the International Holocaust Remembrance Day (Janaury 27th).


halacha - Buying from non-Jews, or selling to non-Jews, within three days of their holidays


Yoreh De'ah 148:1 says, in part:



שְׁלשָׁה יָמִים לִפְנֵי חַגָּם שֶׁל גּוֹיִים עוֹבְדֵי אֱלִילִים אָסוּר לִקַּח מֵהֶם וְלִמְכֹּר לָהֶם דָּבָר הַמִּתְקַיֵּם. וּמֻתָּר לִמְכֹּר לָהֶם דָּבָר שֶׁאֵינוֹ מִתְקַיֵּם עַד יוֹם חַגָּם, כְּגוֹן יְרָקוֹת וְתַבְשִׁיל.



R' Pesach Feldman translates:



Three days before the festival of idolaters, one may not buy from them, or sell to them something that lasts. One may sell something that will not last until the day of their festival, such as vegetables or a cooked food.




(To learn about the reasoning behind the law, see here.)


But there's a catch. Even though this law is in Yoreh De'ah, it's neither widely publicized nor widely talked about. In fact, I'd never even heard of the law's existence until I was in my thirties, when I saw a certain comment by Mi Yodeya moderator Double AA.


In general, is the above law still applicable in America nowadays?


See also this related question.



Answer




In a 5775 issue of Halachically Speaking, R' Moishe Dovid Lebovitz of Kof-K Kosher Supervision writes:



Practically speaking, we do business with non-Jews every business day of the year, even on their holidays. Many heterim are offered for this practice. [See: R' Ari Wasserman. Higyonei Haparsha: Shemos. Pages 276-278.]





R' Lebovitz was citing R' Ari Wasserman (who teaches at Aish Gesher). But, when you look at his actual words, R' Wasserman also cites some stricter opinions. See the first two paragraphs of page 7 of this PDF.


(His website's copyright policies are strict, and I haven't emailed to request an exception. In case the link breaks, I've used the Wayback Machine's "Save Page Now" tool to save copies here.)


R' Wasserman also offers alternatives to his above PDF: a Hebrew version and an audio file.



In the end, ask your rabbi.


nuances - Difference between ではダメ、いけない、ならない to end a sentence



This question came up from a previous SO post Katakana ダメ to end a sentence - emphasis?



全ての敵を倒す必要はないが、逃げてばかりではダメ。


It is not necessary to beat all enemies, but you can't run away all the time



The question was raised that this is similar to using ~ては (いけない・ならない). ダメ gives it a harsher or more colloquial feel.


Comparing all three in the same sentence, what are the differences in their meanings?




word choice - を vs が with use against 好き?


The difference between が and を with the potential form of a verb. and Is it true that all nouns must be able to accept a が particle and a を particle? are noted as possible duplicates; however, I haven't seen an analogous structure. The examples I have seen use a verb on the right-hand side, rather than an adjectivial noun.



Please compare two sentences:


このかばんが好きです。

and


このかばんをすきです。

Both are correct, right? Is このかばん emphasized in the sooner sentence and すき emphasized in the latter sentences? Or are these sentences completely the same? Or is there something else going on?


Please, feel free to just explain the difference. Thank you.



Answer



In this case, 好き is a na-adjective, and the situation is different from potential verbs, which optionally allow accusative case marker . In order to have a noun phrase marked as accusative case, there has to be a transitive verb. In the expression このかばんを好きです, there is no transitive verb that can assign accusative case, and so it is ungrammatical.




× このかばんを好きです
 このかばんが好きです



However, if the relevant part is embedded as a subordinate clause of a transitive verb, then you can use . In the example below, 思う has the ability to assign accusative case, and since it does not have its own direct object, and hence has not used up this ability, it can assign accusative case to the object このかばん of the subordinate clause.



 僕は[彼がこのかばんを好きだと]思う
 僕は[彼がこのかばんが好きだと]思う



matlab - How to convert time-domain signal to complex envelope?



Matlab and Simulink Communications Toolbox digital demodulators are defined to only work on the complex envelope representation of a baseband signal.


To obtain the time-domain representation of this signal, I believe one takes the real part of the complex envelope.


Given just this real part, how does one convert the time-domain representation of modulated data back into a complex envelope such that a Matlab demodulator will demodulate it?


Application: I'm trying to simulate a simple audio FSK system in Simulink.



Answer



These are the main ideas:



  1. Consider a receiver that picks up a signal $r(t)$. This signal has bandwidth $W$ and is centered on carrier frequency $f_c$.

  2. Using the Hilbert transform, eliminate the negative frequencies of $r(t)$. The resulting signal, $r_+(t)$, is called an analytic signal.

  3. Now, downconvert the analytic signal using a complex exponential, so that the spectrum is centered around 0. This signal, called $\tilde r(t)$, is the complex envelope of $r(t)$. Its spectrum goes from $-W/2$ to $W/2$, and its bandwidth is $B=W/2$.


  4. The complex envelope is almost always complex, but if the spectrum of $r(t)$ is symmetrical around $f_c$, the CE is real. Examples of this are AM DSB and BPSK.


In the transmitter you would do the opposite:



  1. Start with a complex envelope $\tilde s(t)$ that represents the information you want to transmit. Its spectrum should go from $-W/2$ to $W/2$. An example would be a QAM signal with complex symbols.

  2. Upconvert the CE to frequency $f_c$, multiplying by a complex exponential. The result is an analytic signal with only positive frequencies. The signal will be centered around $f_c$ and cover the frequency range from $f_c-W/2$ to $f_c+W/2$.

  3. Take the real part of the analytic signal to convert it to a real signal that can be physically generated and transmitted.


All of these steps can be accomplished in Matlab. Be sure to read the documentation for the hilbert command. I can't comment on the corresponding Simulink blocks, since I don't use them.


Also note that it is very likely that you don't have to do all this. If you can perform all your simulations using the complex envelope, you'll save a lot of computing time. The reason is that the transmitted and received signals need to be sampled at least at a rate $2(f_c+W/2)$, whereas the complex envelope can be sampled at $W$ real samples per second -- a huge difference for large $f_c$.



periodic trends - Comparing radii in lithium, beryllium, magnesium, aluminium and sodium ions

Apparently the of last four, $\ce{Mg^2+}$ is closest in radius to $\ce{Li+}$. Is this true, and if so, why would a whole larger shell ($\ce{...